10.11 - Universal Mock Examination 2

Format: 100 original EPA 608-style multiple-choice questions
Distribution: 25 Core + 25 Type I + 25 Type II + 25 Type III
Testing condition: Closed book
Suggested practice target: 2 hours unless the selected approved provider uses a different limit
Scoring: Score Core, Type I, Type II, and Type III separately
Important: These are original certification-preparation questions. They are not actual, leaked, or official EPA or certifying-provider examination questions.

Instructions

Select the one best answer for each question. Complete all 100 questions without notes, internet access, or the answer file when using this as a readiness assessment.

Read all four choices before answering. Pay special attention to words such as not, except, best, first, maximum, minimum, absolute, gauge, current, and required.

Use the separate answer file only after the full attempt is complete. Record uncertain answers so that correct guesses are still reviewed.

Core — Questions 1–25

Question 1

Which atmospheric layer contains the protective ozone layer important to Section 608 environmental study?

A. Mesosphere

B. Thermosphere

C. Troposphere only

D. Stratosphere

Question 2

Which refrigerant family has zero ODP because it contains no chlorine or bromine, but may still have significant GWP?

A. CFC

B. HCFC

C. HFC

D. Halon

Question 3

Which U.S. law is the primary federal basis for EPA Section 608 refrigerant-management requirements?

A. Clean Air Act

B. Occupational Safety and Health Act only

C. National Electrical Code

D. Safe Drinking Water Act

Question 4

A technician intentionally releases a covered substitute refrigerant during repair because it has zero ODP. Which statement is correct?

A. The release is allowed because only CFCs are covered.

B. The release is allowed if the appliance is residential.

C. The release is allowed if the charge is under 5 lb.

D. Zero ODP alone does not create a venting exemption; covered substitutes may not be intentionally vented.

Question 5

Which person is MOST clearly performing a Section 608 technician activity?

A. A worker painting an outdoor unit cabinet

B. A custodian cleaning the mechanical-room floor

C. A person adding refrigerant to a stationary heat pump

D. An electrician replacing a building light fixture

Question 6

A tractor cab air conditioner meets the current MVAC-like appliance definition. Which certification pathway may be used for service?

A. Type II Section 608 or the applicable Section 609 certification pathway

B. Type III only

C. Type I only

D. No certification if the work is unpaid

Question 7

Used refrigerant has been cleaned by oil separation and filtration for permitted reuse in equipment of the same owner, but it has not been verified to reclamation purity. What has been done?

A. Reclaimed

B. Recycled

C. Destroyed

D. Manufactured

Question 8

What is required before recovered refrigerant is considered reclaimed under Section 608?

A. It must be reprocessed to the applicable purity specifications and verified using the prescribed analytical method.

B. It must be mixed with virgin refrigerant.

C. It must be heated above 130°F.

D. It must merely be placed in a new cylinder.

Question 9

During recovery, the receiving cylinder becomes much warmer and its pressure rises. What effect is MOST likely?

A. Recovery speeds up because cylinder backpressure increases.

B. Recovery slows because the pressure difference driving refrigerant flow is reduced.

C. The refrigerant automatically becomes reclaimed.

D. The recovery machine no longer needs a condenser.

Question 10

A recovery cylinder contains one refrigerant. What is the best practice before adding refrigerant from another appliance?

A. Ignore cylinder contents when the pressure is low.

B. Mix different refrigerants if both are non-ODS.

C. Add nitrogen so the refrigerants remain separated.

D. Confirm that the refrigerant is the same before combining it.

Question 11

Which statement correctly compares a recovery machine and a vacuum pump?

A. Both are used primarily to vent refrigerant.

B. A recovery machine captures refrigerant; a vacuum pump is primarily used to evacuate air and moisture after recovery.

C. A vacuum pump replaces the recovery cylinder.

D. A recovery machine is used only to measure pressure.

Question 12

A pressure reading is 19.7 psia at a location where atmospheric pressure is approximately 14.7 psia. What is the gauge pressure?

A. 0 psig

B. 34.4 psig

C. 14.7 psig

D. 5 psig

Question 13

Which statement about vacuum readings is correct?

A. Absolute pressure can be less than 0 psia.

B. On an inches-of-Hg vacuum scale, a smaller value always means a deeper vacuum.

C. 25 mm Hg absolute is the same as 25 in. Hg vacuum.

D. On an absolute-pressure scale, a smaller value indicates a deeper vacuum.

Question 14

For a zeotropic blend, the bubble-point temperature at the measured liquid pressure is 72°F. The liquid-line temperature is 66°F. What is the subcooling?

A. 72°F

B. -6°F

C. 6°F

D. 138°F

Question 15

Why should a system be leak checked after repair before final charging?

A. To verify the repair and avoid losing newly added refrigerant.

B. To raise the refrigerant ODP.

C. To eliminate the need for evacuation.

D. To allow use of oxygen in the refrigerant circuit.

Question 16

Which material is especially important to keep dry because many modern lubricants such as POE readily absorb moisture?

A. Cylinder paint

B. Refrigeration oil

C. Copper tube insulation

D. Thermostat wire

Question 17

Why is a pressure regulator required when using a nitrogen cylinder for a refrigeration pressure test?

A. To control the very high cylinder pressure delivered to the system.

B. To convert nitrogen into refrigerant.

C. To increase nitrogen-cylinder pressure above its rating.

D. To eliminate the need for relief protection.

Question 18

In a poorly ventilated low area, a large refrigerant release can be dangerous primarily because many refrigerants can:

A. Increase the oxygen concentration to 100%.

B. Neutralize all combustible materials.

C. Displace oxygen and create an asphyxiation hazard.

D. Make electrical circuits intrinsically safe.

Question 19

Which cylinder practice is unsafe?

A. Use a scale while filling a recovery cylinder.

B. Heat a recovery cylinder with an open flame to increase pressure.

C. Protect cylinders from excessive heat.

D. Keep cylinders secured during transport.

Question 20

Which observation during a standing-vacuum test is MORE consistent with moisture/outgassing than a large external leak?

A. An immediate return to atmospheric pressure

B. A slower pressure rise that tends to stabilize

C. A broken hose visibly open to the room

D. A service valve intentionally opened to atmosphere

Question 21

A final processor receives appliances with refrigerant already recovered by a supplier. What should the processor have before relying on prior recovery?

A. A verbal assurance with no identifying information

B. Only a sticker saying “empty”

C. Appropriate verification such as the required signed statement or qualifying contract

D. A nitrogen cylinder connected to each appliance

Question 22

A technician recovers refrigerant for disposal from an appliance with a 20-lb full charge. Which information belongs in the current required disposal record for that appliance?

A. Company name, appliance location, date of recovery, and refrigerant type

B. Only the technician certification number

C. Only the recovery-machine serial number

D. Only the final cylinder weight

Question 23

Which statement about the 80% value is correct?

A. It is the Type III normal evacuation endpoint.

B. It is the current commercial-refrigeration leak rate.

C. It can describe a Type I recovery requirement under certain conditions and also a separate recovery-cylinder fill safety concept.

D. It is the maximum pressure of a nitrogen cylinder.

Question 24

Which certification is earned by passing Core and Type III, but not Type I or Type II?

A. Universal

B. Section 609

C. Type I

D. Type III

Question 25

A candidate wants Universal certification. Which Core result cannot be used toward Universal?

A. An open-book Core result

B. A closed-book Core result accepted by the certifying organization

C. A qualifying secure proctored Core result

D. A Core result taken with the other type sections under secure conditions

Type I — Questions 26–50

Question 26

Besides containing 5 lb or less of refrigerant, what condition is required for an appliance to meet the Section 608 small-appliance definition?

A. The appliance must be mounted in a motor vehicle.

B. The appliance must have a field-installed line set.

C. The appliance must use a low-pressure refrigerant.

D. The appliance must be fully manufactured, charged, and hermetically sealed at a factory.

Question 27

Which appliance would NOT qualify as Type I solely because of its construction?

A. Field-installed mini-split with a 3.8-lb charge

B. Factory-sealed dehumidifier with 2 lb of refrigerant

C. Factory-sealed drinking-water cooler with 1 lb of refrigerant

D. Factory-sealed under-counter ice maker with 2.5 lb of refrigerant

Question 28

A small appliance is recovered with equipment manufactured in 1990. What percentage-recovery requirement applies regardless of whether the appliance compressor runs?

A. 70%

B. 80%

C. 90%

D. 100%

Question 29

A technician chooses the vacuum endpoint rather than percentage recovery on a small appliance. At what level is the Type I requirement satisfied?

A. 0 in. Hg vacuum

B. 4 in. Hg vacuum

C. 25 mm Hg absolute

D. 10 in. Hg vacuum

Question 30

With recovery equipment manufactured on or after November 15, 1993, which pairing is correct when the percentage method is used on a small appliance?

A. Functional appliance compressor: 80%; nonfunctional: 90%

B. Functional: 100%; nonfunctional: 90%

C. Functional: 90%; nonfunctional: 80%

D. Functional: 4%; nonfunctional: 8%

Question 31

A working-compressor refrigerator is being recovered through a high-side process connection with a system-dependent device. What creates the useful refrigerant flow toward that connection?

A. The operating appliance compressor

B. A disposable cylinder check valve

C. The thermostat wiring

D. The cabinet drain

Question 32

During failed-compressor recovery, the high side is nearly evacuated but the low-side tubing remains pressurized and cold. What is the BEST next recovery adjustment?

A. Vent the low side to atmosphere.

B. Add/use low-side refrigerant access so the trapped side can also be recovered.

C. Start the seized compressor.

D. Add oxygen to equalize pressure.

Question 33

A small appliance has a failed compressor and refrigerant is suspected to remain dissolved in the compressor oil. Which action is consistent with Type I passive-recovery technique?

A. Use controlled warming and, where appropriate, sharply strike or tap the compressor to help release trapped refrigerant.

B. Apply an open flame directly to the shell.

C. Add oxygen until the oil foams.

D. Vent the compressor shell before connecting recovery equipment.

Question 34

Which description BEST matches a solderless piercing valve used on a small appliance?

A. A refrigerant recovery cylinder

B. A temporary clamp-on access fitting

C. A factory process stub by definition

D. A permanent pressure-relief device

Question 35

Where should a piercing access fitting generally NOT be installed?

A. On suitable straight tubing that matches the fitting instructions

B. On an undamaged service-access section

C. On a capillary tube or badly corroded tubing

D. At an approved tubing location selected for temporary service access

Question 36

After a temporary piercing fitting is removed, what should happen next?

A. Leave the puncture open so future service is easier.

B. Restore/reseal the tubing and leak check it.

C. Wrap the hole with electrical tape only.

D. Increase refrigerant charge until pressure stops leaking.

Question 37

Which statement about a process stub is correct?

A. It is the yellow hose on a manifold gauge set.

B. It is always a Schrader valve.

C. It is a length of tubing provided for refrigerant access and can be resealed after service.

D. It is the recovery-machine compressor.

Question 38

Before using a self-contained recovery machine on a small appliance, which check is MOST important?

A. Disable the recovery machine high-pressure safety to avoid shutdown.

B. Confirm that the appliance compressor must run or the machine cannot recover.

C. Use a disposable cylinder if it is empty.

D. Confirm the machine is compatible with the refrigerant and that the recovery cylinder has adequate capacity.

Question 39

A stabilized small appliance shows a pressure-temperature relationship that does not match the identified refrigerant. What should the technician consider before recovery or charging?

A. The pressure-temperature relationship is never useful on small appliances.

B. The appliance must contain exactly 5 lb of refrigerant.

C. The compressor must be mechanically seized.

D. The refrigerant may be misidentified or noncondensables may be present.

Question 40

A factory-sealed refrigerator is being repaired, not discarded. Who may open the refrigerant circuit for compressor replacement?

A. Anyone because it is a small appliance

B. A person with appropriate Type I or Universal certification, subject to any applicable apprentice/lab exception

C. Only a Section 609 technician

D. Only the final scrap processor

Question 41

A person is removing refrigerant solely for final disposal of a small appliance. Which statement is correct?

A. The final disposer must hold Type III certification.

B. The refrigerant may be vented because the appliance will be scrapped.

C. The disposal activity has a technician-certification exception, but refrigerant must still be properly recovered.

D. A disposable refrigerant cylinder may be used for recovery.

Question 42

Which document by itself is NOT sufficient as prior-recovery verification at final disposal?

A. An appliance sticker that simply says “refrigerant removed”

B. A qualifying contract with a regular commercial supplier

C. A properly executed signed statement

D. The required documented verification pathway

Question 43

A prior-recovery statement for discarded small appliances lists the recoverer’s name and address but no recovery date. What is the BEST conclusion?

A. The statement becomes complete if a disposal sticker is added.

B. The statement is complete because a date is never required.

C. The statement is incomplete because the date of recovery is also required.

D. The statement is unnecessary whenever the compressor is removed.

Question 44

Which condition would NOT support claiming that a discarded small appliance had already lost its refrigerant through an unavoidable occurrence?

A. The refrigerant line was deliberately cut to make handling easier.

B. A component failed and the charge escaped before disposal.

C. A collision damaged the refrigerant circuit before collection.

D. An accidental event ruptured the circuit before the final processor received it.

Question 45

What is the purpose of keeping small-appliance disposal statements or qualifying contracts for three years?

A. To convert recovered refrigerant into reclaimed refrigerant

B. To prove the appliance compressor was functional

C. To determine the original factory refrigerant charge in every case

D. To document compliance with the prior-recovery verification responsibility

Question 46

A recovery cylinder already contains R-134a. What should be done before recovering refrigerant from another small appliance into that cylinder?

A. Ignore cylinder weight if the compressor is functional.

B. Add any refrigerant because all Type I refrigerants can be mixed.

C. Add air so different refrigerants stratify.

D. Verify that the second appliance also contains compatible R-134a and that the cylinder has adequate capacity.

Question 47

A technician sees frost forming on a small appliance while refrigerant is being recovered. What does the frost MOST likely indicate?

A. The refrigerant has been reclaimed.

B. The appliance has automatically become a low-pressure chiller.

C. Refrigerant evaporation is cooling the local tubing/component.

D. The recovery cylinder is definitely empty.

Question 48

Which statement about the 5-lb value is correct for Type I?

A. It is the maximum refrigerant charge, but the factory-manufactured, factory-charged, and hermetically sealed conditions must also be met.

B. It is the complete definition of a small appliance by itself.

C. It is the Type I recovery-cylinder pressure limit.

D. It is the oil-change opening pressure.

Question 49

A compressor replacement has been completed on a small appliance. Before recharging, what should the technician do as appropriate to the repair?

A. Skip evacuation because Type I recovery was already completed.

B. Vent nitrogen mixed with refrigerant through the process stub.

C. Leave the temporary access fitting as the permanent repair.

D. Leak check and evacuate/dehydrate the repaired circuit.

Question 50

Which Type I practice most directly minimizes refrigerant release when disconnecting service equipment?

A. Use low-loss fittings and follow proper hose-clearing procedures.

B. Disconnect hoses while they contain as much liquid as possible.

C. Cut the service hose after recovery.

D. Open both manifold valves to atmosphere.

Type II — Questions 51–75

Question 51

Which liquid-phase saturation-pressure range at 104°F defines a high-pressure appliance under current Section 608 definitions?

A. Below 45 psia

B. 45 to 170 psia

C. Above 500 psia only

D. 170 to 355 psia

Question 52

Which certification category includes medium-pressure appliances under the current regulatory wording?

A. Type II

B. Type I

C. Type III

D. Section 609 only

Question 53

A walk-in freezer is field assembled and does not meet the small-appliance definition. Its refrigerant is high pressure. Which certification applies?

A. Type I

B. Type III

C. Type II

D. Section 609

Question 54

Which observation is most useful as a possible leak clue on a hermetic high-pressure appliance?

A. Oil traces near a refrigerant connection

B. A clean cabinet label

C. A level concrete equipment pad

D. A normal thermostat display

Question 55

A system has been repaired and evacuated. Before adding the full refrigerant charge, what is the best practice concerning the repaired leak?

A. Assume the repair is tight if the brazed joint looks shiny.

B. Leak test the repaired area using an appropriate method.

C. Charge first, then vent refrigerant if the leak remains.

D. Use oxygen to confirm joint strength.

Question 56

Which current Section 608 leak-rate pairing is correct for qualifying ozone-depleting-refrigerant appliances with at least 50 lb full charge?

A. Commercial refrigeration 30%; industrial process refrigeration 20%

B. All categories 15%

C. Comfort cooling 20%; commercial refrigeration 10%

D. Commercial refrigeration 20%; industrial process refrigeration 30%

Question 57

An industrial-process refrigeration appliance with 400 lb of R-22 exceeds its current applicable leak rate and requires a process shutdown to complete repair. What is the general repair period?

A. 10 days

B. 30 days

C. 120 days

D. 1 year automatically

Question 58

After a successful initial verification test on a leak repair, when is the follow-up verification test generally required?

A. Before the repair is attempted

B. Within 200 days

C. Only when another leak occurs

D. Within 10 days, or within 10 days after normal operating conditions are reached when applicable

Question 59

A technician wants to recover refrigerant from a receiver-equipped system as quickly as practical. Which strategy is best when the machine permits it?

A. Recover vapor only from the suction line for the entire process.

B. Recover bulk liquid from a suitable liquid access point before finishing with vapor.

C. Warm the receiving cylinder with a torch.

D. Close the receiver valves so liquid remains trapped.

Question 60

A recovery process slows because the appliance is cold and refrigerant vapor pressure is low. Which action may help if performed safely and allowed?

A. Adding oxygen to the system

B. Heating the recovery cylinder with an open flame

C. Controlled warming of the appliance

D. Reducing hose diameter

Question 61

A compressor in a parallel rack is isolated by service valves. What should a technician assume before opening it?

A. It is empty because it is isolated.

B. It may still contain refrigerant and must be recovered/evacuated as required.

C. Isolation automatically reclaims the refrigerant.

D. The compressor can be opened at any positive pressure.

Question 62

A medium-pressure appliance has a 90-lb full charge and is recovered with equipment manufactured in 1992. What Table 1 level applies?

A. 0 in. Hg vacuum

B. 4 in. Hg vacuum

C. 10 in. Hg vacuum

D. 15 in. Hg vacuum

Question 63

A high-pressure appliance has a 300-lb full charge and is recovered with equipment manufactured in 1991. What Table 1 level applies?

A. 4 in. Hg vacuum

B. 0 in. Hg vacuum

C. 10 in. Hg vacuum

D. 15 in. Hg vacuum

Question 64

With modern recovery equipment, which Type II condition requires 10 in. Hg vacuum?

A. A very-high-pressure appliance

B. A medium-pressure appliance with 150 lb

C. A high-pressure appliance with 80 lb

D. A medium-pressure appliance with 300 lb

Question 65

A Type II appliance has a 16-lb full charge and no permanently attached pump-out unit. Which recovery-equipment choice is consistent with the current system-dependent restriction?

A. Use ordinary system-dependent equipment because only 1 lb is above the limit.

B. Use a vacuum pump as the refrigerant recovery machine.

C. Vent 1 lb so the charge becomes 15 lb before recovery.

D. Use appropriate self-contained recovery equipment rather than ordinary system-dependent equipment.

Question 66

Which repair is major even if the refrigerant-line opening is small and brief?

A. Replacing external pipe insulation

B. Replacing a service cap

C. Replacing the compressor

D. Tightening a mounting bracket

Question 67

A repair opening has 3 in² of flow area and remains uncovered for 30 minutes, with no named major component removed. Is it major under the numerical opening criterion?

A. No, because the opening does not exceed 4 in².

B. Yes, because any opening over 15 minutes is major.

C. Yes, because the appliance is Type II.

D. No, because major repair applies only to Type III.

Question 68

A Type II repair is non-major and no evacuation to atmosphere will follow completion. If all requirements of the special provision are met, what is the pressure ceiling before opening?

A. 5 psig

B. 10 psig

C. 0 psig

D. 15 in. Hg vacuum

Question 69

A leaking component cannot be pulled to the normal Table 1 level without substantially contaminating recovered refrigerant. Which maximum pressure is allowed for the leaking component being opened after required isolation where possible?

A. Exactly 15 in. Hg vacuum

B. Not above 5 psig

C. Not above 10 psig

D. Not above 0 psig

Question 70

Which statement about a filter-drier replacement is correct?

A. It is not one of the four named major components; the actual opening size/duration and service conditions must still be evaluated.

B. It is automatically non-major regardless of opening size and duration.

C. It is automatically major because every refrigerant component is major.

D. It is governed only by Section 609.

Question 71

A technician reads a moisture indicator after a system repair. Which interpretation practice is best?

A. Assume green always means wet on every brand.

B. Ignore the indicator because moisture cannot affect refrigerant systems.

C. Use the indicator manufacturer’s color legend.

D. Use compressor amperage as the universal color key.

Question 72

Why is starting a reciprocating compressor against a closed discharge service valve dangerous?

A. It converts liquid refrigerant into reclaimed refrigerant.

B. It lowers discharge pressure to zero.

C. It automatically vents through the suction line.

D. It can rapidly create excessive pressure because the compressor is positive displacement.

Question 73

A hermetic compressor is off and the system is under a deep vacuum during dehydration. What should the technician do?

A. Keep the compressor de-energized and use the external vacuum pump.

B. Energize the compressor to finish dehydration faster.

C. Bypass the motor overload and start it briefly.

D. Add oxygen to raise dielectric strength.

Question 74

Why can a missing or failed crankcase heater contribute to compressor damage after a long off cycle?

A. Refrigerant can migrate into the oil, causing dilution and foaming at startup.

B. The condenser water will always freeze.

C. The recovery cylinder will overfill.

D. The refrigerant automatically becomes flammable.

Question 75

A technician is assigned to recover refrigerant from a specialized very-high-pressure appliance, but the available manifold has a lower working-pressure rating than the expected system pressure. What should be done?

A. Use the low-rated manifold if its fittings happen to connect.

B. Use equipment whose working-pressure ratings and refrigerant compatibility are adequate for the job.

C. Disable the recovery-machine pressure cutout.

D. Cool the manifold with an open flame before connecting it.

Type III — Questions 76–100

Question 76

Which statement BEST distinguishes a Type III appliance from the low side of an ordinary Type II system?

A. Type III classification is based on the appliance refrigerant having saturation pressure below 45 psia at 104°F.

B. Any suction line is automatically a Type III appliance.

C. Type III is determined by equipment weight.

D. Every evaporator is a separate Type III appliance.

Question 77

A pinhole develops in a low-pressure chiller while its refrigerant side is below atmospheric pressure. Why might no outward refrigerant plume be visible?

A. Low-pressure refrigerants cannot leak in either direction.

B. The refrigerant instantly becomes solid at every leak.

C. The leak automatically closes whenever the purge starts.

D. The pressure difference can draw air and moisture inward through the leak.

Question 78

What effect can accumulated noncondensables have on a low-pressure chiller condenser?

A. They eliminate the need for a purge unit.

B. They lower total pressure to perfect vacuum.

C. They can increase condenser pressure and reduce heat-transfer performance.

D. They permanently increase refrigerant purity.

Question 79

A chiller shows both unusually frequent purge operation and higher-than-normal condensing pressure. Which condition could explain both symptoms?

A. A lower-than-normal water-box pressure only

B. A perfectly tight refrigerant circuit

C. Air infiltration causing noncondensables to accumulate

D. A recovery cylinder filled with a different refrigerant in storage

Question 80

Controlled warming can bring a low-pressure chiller from vacuum toward atmospheric pressure before a leak test. What refrigerant property makes this possible?

A. Its ODP increases as temperature rises.

B. Its saturation pressure increases as refrigerant temperature rises.

C. Its mass disappears when heated.

D. Its pressure becomes independent of temperature.

Question 81

During a low-pressure chiller leak test, the pressure reaches 9 psig. What is the best action if the system is adequately pressurized for leak checking?

A. Continue increasing to 20 psig for a stronger test.

B. Open the rupture disc manually.

C. Maintain controlled pressure without exceeding the 10-psig Type III exam maximum.

D. Add oxygen until bubbles are visible.

Question 82

When checking a water box for a refrigerant leak under the traditional Type III procedure, what is done after the water is drained?

A. Pressurize the water box with oxygen.

B. Place the refrigerant detector probe at the water-box drain opening.

C. Fill the water box with recovered refrigerant.

D. Start the chiller compressor with the water box open.

Question 83

What is the principal reason liquid refrigerant is recovered before vapor from a low-pressure chiller when possible?

A. Vapor cannot be recovered from a chiller.

B. Liquid removal moves a large mass of refrigerant quickly.

C. Liquid recovery raises the chiller pressure.

D. It eliminates the need to manage water temperature.

Question 84

Which component of a self-contained low-pressure recovery unit removes heat from compressed recovered refrigerant so it can condense?

A. Evaporator water box

B. Purge unit

C. Recovery-unit condenser

D. Rupture disc

Question 85

A recovery unit is being set up for traditional Type III low-pressure service. Which high-side cutout value is associated with the recovery unit in exam preparation?

A. 5 psig

B. 25 psig

C. 15 psig

D. 10 psig

Question 86

Which statement about the 15-psig Type III rupture-disc exam value is correct?

A. It is the normal non-major opening pressure.

B. It is the current low-pressure Table 1 evacuation endpoint.

C. It is the compressor-oil temperature.

D. It applies to the low-pressure recovery vessel, not automatically to every chiller relief device.

Question 87

Which change during deep recovery would MOST increase the risk of freezing water in chiller tubes?

A. Stopping required water circulation while refrigerant pressure continues to fall

B. Increasing recovery-condenser cooling within limits

C. Removing bulk liquid refrigerant before vapor recovery

D. Monitoring the refrigerant-side pressure

Question 88

A tube leak has allowed water into the refrigerant side. Why is deep evacuation especially hazardous?

A. The water increases the recovery-cylinder tare weight only.

B. The water automatically becomes refrigerant.

C. The water can freeze as pressure and saturation temperature fall.

D. The water prevents any pressure change.

Question 89

A tube leak is suspected and the water side remains full and pressurized while the refrigerant side is pulled into a deep vacuum. What is the principal concern?

A. The purge unit will permanently reclaim the water.

B. Water can be drawn into the refrigerant circuit and then freeze as pressure falls.

C. The compressor oil will automatically become dry.

D. The vacuum will prevent any water movement through the leak.

Question 90

Why can compressor oil behave as a hidden refrigerant reservoir during low-pressure recovery?

A. Refrigerant can dissolve in the oil and be released as pressure is reduced.

B. Oil permanently destroys refrigerant molecules.

C. Oil raises the saturation pressure to infinity.

D. Refrigerant cannot mix with any lubricant.

Question 91

What is the purpose of heating oil to approximately 130°F before oil removal in the traditional Type III procedure?

A. Raise the recovery-vessel rupture pressure.

B. Increase the oil water content.

C. Change the chiller pressure classification.

D. Drive dissolved refrigerant out of the oil and reduce release during removal.

Question 92

Which pairing correctly separates two Type III service values?

A. Oil-change special opening: 10 in. Hg vacuum; normal endpoint: 200 lb

B. Oil-change special opening: 25 mm Hg absolute; normal endpoint: 5 psig

C. Oil-change special opening: 15 psig; normal endpoint: 130°F

D. Oil-change special opening: no higher than 5 psig; normal low-pressure Table 1 endpoint: 25 mm Hg absolute

Question 93

A low-pressure chiller has just been deeply evacuated. Which charging sequence is safest for freeze prevention?

A. Introduce vapor first, then transition to liquid when conditions permit.

B. Introduce bulk liquid first, then reduce pressure.

C. Charge through the rupture-disc outlet.

D. Add water to the refrigerant side before charging.

Question 94

Why is the evaporator charging valve used for a centrifugal chiller in the Type III charging procedure?

A. It is the purge-unit exhaust.

B. It is the water-system relief valve.

C. It is the designated low refrigerant-side charging connection.

D. It is the recovery-vessel fill valve.

Question 95

Which statement about a zeotropic blend and vapor-first Type III charging is correct?

A. A blend must always be withdrawn as vapor.

B. The blend may need to be withdrawn from the source as liquid, while the initial refrigerant entering a deeply evacuated chiller is still managed as vapor.

C. Vapor-first charging means blend composition no longer matters.

D. The source cylinder should be filled with air before charging.

Question 96

A technician uses recovery equipment manufactured in 1990 on a low-pressure appliance. What normal Table 1 endpoint applies?

A. 25 mm Hg absolute

B. 4 in. Hg vacuum

C. 10 in. Hg vacuum

D. 15 in. Hg vacuum

Question 97

Does the 200-lb charge boundary change the normal Type III Table 1 evacuation requirement?

A. Yes, it changes the endpoint to 15 in. Hg vacuum.

B. No, low-pressure appliances remain at 25 mm Hg absolute.

C. Yes, it changes the endpoint to 0 psig.

D. Yes, but only with pre-1993 recovery equipment.

Question 98

A low-pressure appliance is undergoing a qualifying non-major repair with no evacuation to atmosphere after the work. Which method is consistent with the current rule for bringing it to atmospheric pressure?

A. Use controlled heat as applicable and only use nitrogen within the conditions allowed by the rule.

B. Always use unregulated nitrogen regardless of refrigerant boiling point.

C. Use oxygen because the system is below atmospheric pressure.

D. Vent refrigerant until the gauge reads 0 psig.

Question 99

An oxygen monitor shows a normal oxygen concentration, but the refrigerant monitor is in alarm. What is the BEST interpretation?

A. A normal oxygen reading proves there is no refrigerant in the room.

B. The refrigerant alarm must be ignored whenever oxygen is normal.

C. Both instruments necessarily measure exactly the same gas.

D. The refrigerant alarm still matters because the two instruments measure different quantities.

Question 100

A chiller water pump is off, but the water box is below an elevated piping loop and a pressure gauge still reads positive pressure. What does this show?

A. Stopping the pump does not eliminate static head or trapped pressure, so the water side must still be isolated and depressurized before opening.

B. A stopped pump always means zero water pressure.

C. The positive pressure proves the refrigerant side is overcharged.

D. The water-box cover may be removed without further checks.

Score Record

Project readiness target: at least 22/25 in each section, with no unresolved critical safety or current-regulation error. A second independent closed-book result at the same section target is required before final readiness.

Record every missed, guessed, or low-confidence question in 10.10 - Error Analysis and Remediation.md.